Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 21.06.2025 03:05
There's no rule.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Wrongly deported Kilmar Abrego Garcia returning to U.S. to face criminal charges - Axios
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Is anyone else losing complete respect for the US at this point?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Over-the-counter supplement could prevent heart disease in type 2 diabetes patients - Medical Xpress
What's (not “whats”) the rule?